Genetics, Cellular & Molecular Biology

The bacteria known to be naturally competent for transformation of DNA is

Antibiotic resistance marker that CANNOT be used in a cloning vector in Gram negative bacteria is

In transgenics, alterations in the sequence of nucleotide in genes are due to P. Substitution 0. Deletion R. Insertion Rearrangement

During transcription in prokaryotic cells, the movement of RNA polymerase along the DNA double helix produces topological changes in the template:

An exampie for template independent DNA polymerase is

Somatic selt gene transfer is used for Q. transgenic diploid cell production P. Iransgenic animal production R. in-vitro fertilization S. classical breeding of farm animals

Expressed Sequence Tag is defined as

Match the following antibiotics in Group E with their mode of action in Group Il Group I Group Il P. Chloramphenicol ). Norfloxaci 1. Binds to DNA gyrase Puromycil 2. Binds to RNA Polymerase S. Rifampicin 4. Mimics amincacyl-RNA 3. Inhibits peptidyl transferase

Match the promoters listed in Group I with the tissues listed in Group Il Group! Group Il P. a-Amylase Q. Glutenin 1. Endosperm 2. Tuber R. Phaseollin 3. Aleurone S. Patatin 4. Cotyledon

Consider the following statements. II. The ligation efficiency of T4 DNA ligase can be increased with PEG and ficoll L. TA DNA ligase can catalyze blual end ligation more efficiently than E.coli DNA ligase

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and the Reason (r) Assertion: function. Cytoplasmic male sterility (cms) is invariably due to defect(s) in mitochondrial Reason: cms can be overcome by pollinating a ferility restoring (Rf) plant with pollen from a non cms plant.

Match the techniques in Group I with their primary applications in Group II: Group I: P. Real Time-PCR Q. Southern blotting R. Western blotting S. Northern blotting Group II: 1. DNA fragment detection 2. Quantitative transcript analysis 3. Specific protein detection 4. RNA size and abundance analysis

Diphtheria toxin, tetracycline and streptomycin inhibit

Determine the correctness of the following statements I. Enhancer sequences are those DNA sequences that are involved in increasing the rate of DNA replication. II. Enhancer sequences work by binding with eukaryotic gene activator factors.

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and the Reason (r) Assertion: The elucidation of ribosome structure helps in the development of new generation drugs. Reason: The high resolution of macromolecular structure has enabled in structure-based drug design.

Match the terms in Group I with their associated functions in Group II. Group I Group II Q. Leucine zipper P. Shine-Dalgarno sequences 1. Aminoacylation of tRNA 2. Gene silencing R. Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase 3. Ribosome binding and facilitation of S. RNA interference (RNAi) translation initiation 4. Transcription factors

Protein-protein interactions are studied by P. DNA foot printing Q. Yeast two hybrid system R. Ligase chain reaction S. Mass spectrometry

Which of the following characteristics with respect to bacterial DNA polymerases is/are TRUE? P. DNA Polymerase I has 5' to 3' exonuclease proofreading activity Q. DNA Polymerase III is the primary replicative polymerase R. DNA Polymerase I requires RNA primers for in vivo initiation S. DNA Polymerase II has reverse transcriptase activity

Nude mice refers to

A single base pair of DNA weighs 1.1 × 10-21 grams. How many picomoles of a plasmid vector of length 2750 bp are contained in 1 g of purified DNA?

In a lac-operon linked genetic cross, an E. coli strain carrying lacI-d (dominant negative repressor mutant) was infected with an F' plasmid carrying wild-type lacI+. Therefore, the lac-operon is:

In nature, the horizontal gene transfer across bacteria is mediated by

Phylum proteobacteria is subdivided into -, -, -, - and -proteobacteria based on

The RNA primer synthesized during the replication process in bacteria is removed by

Match the antibioticsinGroup Iwith the targets inGroup II. Group I Group II P. Sulfonamide 1. Peptidoglycan synthesis Q. Quinolones 2. Peptide chain elongation R. Erythromycin 3. Folic acid biosynthesis S. Cephalosporin 4. Topoisomerase

In nature, Agrobacterium tumefaciens mediated infection of plant cells leads to P. crown gall disease in plants Q. hairy root disease in plants R. transfer of T-DNA into the plant chromosome S. transfer of Ri-plasmid into the plant cell

A complete restriction digestion of a circular plasmid (5000bp) was carried out with HindIII,BamHIandEcoRIindividually. Restriction digestion yielded following fragments. Plasmid + HindIII→ 1200bp and3800bp Plasmid + BamHI→5000bp Plasmid + EcoRI→ 2500bp The number of sites for EcoRI,BamHIandHindIIIpresent on this plasmid are

In a genetic study, 80 people were found to have alleles for polydactyly. Only 36 of them were polydactylous. What is the extent of penetrance percentage? ________

The minimum number of independent recombinant clones required to represent this fragment in genomic library are

The 5’ ends of the mature forms of the prokaryotic mRNAs and tRNAs are

The statistical frequency of the occurrence of a particular restriction enzyme cleavage site that is 6 bases long can be estimated to be

The reactions leading to the formation of amino acids from the TCA cycle intermediates are

The plasmid DNA was subjected to restriction digestion using the enzyme EcoRI and analysed on an agarose gel. Assuming digestion has worked (the enzyme was active), match the identity of the DNA bands shown in the image in Group I with their identity in Group II. Group I Group II P. Bands labeled as A 1. Nicked Q. Band labeled as B 2. Supercoiled R. Band labeled as C 3. Concatemers S. Band labeled as D 4. Linear

For their efficient translation, eubacterial mRNAs possess a Shine-Dalgarno sequence for its recognition by an anti-Shine-Dalgarno sequence (ASD) in the ribosomes. The correct statement is

Which one of the following features is NOT required in a prokaryotic expression vector?

Choose the appropriate pair of primers to amplify the following DNA fragment by the polymerase chain reaction (PCR). 5' - GACCTGIGG- 3' -CTGGACACC- --ATACGGGAT- 3' - TATGCCCTA-5' Primers P. 5' -GACCTGTGG-3' Q. 5'-CCACAGGTC-3' R. 5' -TAGGGCATA-3' S. 5' - ATCCCGTAT-3'

The interaction between an antigen (Ag) and a single-chain antibody (Ab) was studied using Scatchard analysis. The result is shown below. Y (Ab-AgI* [Ag] → X [Ab-Ag] - The affinity of interaction and the total concentration of antibody, respectively, can be determined from

An isolated population on an island has the following genotypic frequencies: Genotype AA Aa aa Frequency 0.4 0.3 Assuming that there are only two alleles (A and a) for the gene, the genotypic frequency of AA in the next generation will be 0.25

Plasmid DNA (0.5 kg) containing an ampicillin resistance marker was added to 200 ul of competent cells. The transformed competent cells were diluted 10,000 times, out of which, 50 pl was plated on agar plates containing ampicillin. A total of 35 colomes were obtained. The transformation efficiency is _ _× 10° cfu ug-1 2.8

Match the antibiotics in Group I with their modes of action in Group II Group I Group II P) Chloramphenicol 1) Inhibits protein synthesis by acting on 30S bosomal subunit Q) Rifampicin R) Tetracycline 3) Inhibits protein synthesis by acting on 50S ribosomal subunit 2) Interferes with DNA replication by inhibiting DNA gyrase S) Quinolone 4) Interferes with RNA polymerase activity 5) Inhibits B-lactamase activity