Official PYQ Paper

GATE BT 2016 Question Paper & Solutions

Full official paper with all 65 questions solved with official answer keys.

Start 3-Hour CBT Simulator

Questions Directory (Q1 – Q65)

Q1 MCQ • 1M

Verbal Aptitude

Bacteria with two or more flagella at one or both ends are called (A) amphitrichous (B) peritrichous (C) lophotrichous (D) atrichous

Q2 MCQ • 1M

Verbal Aptitude

Which family of viruses has single stranded DNA? (A) Herpesviridae (B) Poxviridae (C) Retroviridae (D) Parvoviridae

Q3 MCQ • 1M

Verbal Aptitude

Choose the statement(s) where the underlined word is used correctly: (i) A prone is a dried plum. (ii) He was lying prone on the floor. (iii) People who eat a lot of fat are prone to heart disease.

Q4 MCQ • 1M

Analytical & Spatial Aptitude

Which of the following are TRUE for Treponema pallidum? P. It is the causative agent of syphilis Q. It is a spirochete R. It is a non-motile bacterium S. It is generally susceptible to penicillin Choose the correct combination. (A) P, Q and R only (B) P, Q and S only (C) P, R and S only (D) Q, R and S only

Q5 MCQ • 1M

Quantitative Aptitude

A window is made up of a square portion and an equilateral triangle portion above it. The base of the triangular portion coincides with the upper side of the square. If the perimeter of the window is 6 m, the area of the window in m2 is ___________.

Q6 MCQ • 2M

Quantitative Aptitude

Students taking an exam are divided into two groups, P and Q such that each group has the same number of students. The performance of each of the students in a test was evaluated out of 200 standard deviation of group P was 25, while that of group Q was 5. Assuming that the marks were distributed on a normal distribution, which of the following statements will have the highest probability of being TRUE?

Q7 MCQ • 2M

Verbal Aptitude

A smart city integrates all modes of transport, uses clean energy and promotes sustainable use of resources. It also uses technology to ensure safety and security of the city, something which critics argue, will lead to a surveillance state. Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above paragraph? (i) All smart cities encourage the formation of surveillance states. (ii) Surveillance is an integral part of a smart city. (iii) Sustainability and surveillance go hand in hand in a smart city. (iv) There is a perception that smart cities promote surveillance.

Q8 MCQ • 2M

Analytical & Spatial Aptitude

Which one of the following is NOT an algorithm for building phylogenetic trees? (A) Maximum parsimony (B) Neighbor joining (C) Maximum likelihood (D) Bootstrap

Q9 MCQ • 2M

Quantitative Aptitude

Cesium chloride density gradient centrifugation is commonly used for the separation of DNA molecules. The buoyant density, ρ, of a double stranded Cs+DNA is given by the equation ρ = 1.66 + 0.098XG+C where XG+C denotes (A) total number of G and C (B) mole fraction of G+C (C) number of GC repeats (D) ratio of G+C to A+T content

Q10 MCQ • 2M

Quantitative Aptitude

Disaccharide molecules that contain 1 4) glycosidic linkage are (A) sucrose and maltose (B) sucrose and isomaltose (C) maltose and isomaltose (D) lactose and cellobiose

Q11 MCQ • 1M

Mass transfer in bioprocesses (kLa)

Bacteria with two or more flagella at one or both ends are called

Q12 MCQ • 1M

Biomolecules, enzyme kinetics

Which one of the following is NOT used for the measurement of cell viability in animal cell culture? (A) Trypan blue dye exclusion (B) Tetrazolium (MTT) assay (C) LDH activity in the culture medium (D) Coulter counter

Q13 MCQ • 1M

DNA replication, transcription, translation

Which one of the following techniques relies on the spin angular momentum of a photon? (A) CD spectroscopy (B) Fluorescence spectroscopy (C) IR spectroscopy (D) Raman spectroscopy

Q14 MCQ • 1M

Biomolecules, enzyme kinetics

Which of the following are TRUE for Treponema pallidum? P. It is the causative agent of syphilis Q. It is a spirochete R. It is a non-motile bacterium S. It is generally susceptible to penicillin Choose the correct combination.

Q15 MCQ • 1M

Mass transfer in bioprocesses (kLa)

’-ATGGACGTGCTTCCCgAAAGCATCGGGC-3’ R. 5’-ATGGACGTGCTTCC-AAAGCATCGGGC-3’ S. 5’-ATGGACGTGCTTCCCAAtGCATCGGGC-3’ T. 5’-ATGGACGaGCTTCCCAAAGCATCGGGC-3’ [Point mutations are shown in the lower case or ‘-’ within the sequences] Which of the above mutant sequences DO NOT have frame-shift?

Q16 MCQ • 1M

DNA replication, transcription, translation

Which one of the following is NOT a therapeutic agent based on nucleic acid for the treatment of genetic disorders?

Q17 MCQ • 1M

Linear Algebra

Fed batch cultivation is suitable for which of the following? P. Processes with substrate inhibition Q. Processes with product inhibition R. High cell density cultivation (A) P and Q only (B) P and R only (C) Q and R only (D) P, Q and R

Q18 MCQ • 1M

Linear Algebra

A biological process is involved in the ________ treatment of industrial effluent. (A) primary (B) secondary (C) tertiary (D) quaternary

Q19 MCQ • 1M

Calculus

Cesium chloride density gradient centrifugation is commonly used for the separation of DNA molecules. The buoyant density, ρ, of a double stranded Cs+DNA is given by the equation ρ = 1.66 + 0.098XG+C where XG+C denotes

Q20 MCQ • 1M

Bioreactor types, scale-up

The power required for agitation of non-aerated medium in fermentation is ________ kW. Operating conditions are as follows: Fermentor diameter = 3 m Number of impellers = 1 Mixing speed = 300 rpm Diameter of the Rushton turbine = 1 m Viscosity of the broth = 0.001 Pa.s Density of the broth = 1000 kg.m -3 Power number = 5

Q21 MCQ • 1M

Bioreactor types, scale-up

Which one of the following is the most suitable type of impeller for mixing high viscosity (viscosity > 105 cP) fluids? (A) Propeller (B) Helical ribbon (C) Paddle (D) Flat blade turbine

Q22 MCQ • 1M

Downstream processing (chromatography, filtration)

Runs scored by a batsman in five one-day matches are 55, 75, 67, 88 and 15. The standard deviation is __________________.

Q23 MCQ • 1M

Linear Algebra

The positive Eigen value of the following matrix is ______________. 21 52   

Q24 MCQ • 1M

Differential Equations

The Laplace transform F(s) of the function f(t) = cos (at), where a is constant, is _____________.

Q25 MCQ • 1M

Mass transfer in bioprocesses (kLa)

The value of the integral Q.9 0 (1 )(2 ) dx x x is _____________________.

Q26 MCQ • 1M

Bioenergetics and Metabolism

Which combination of the following statements is CORRECT for cyanobacteria? P. They can perform oxygenic photosynthesis Q. Usually filamentous forms are involved in nitrogen fixation R. Nitrogen fixation occurs in heterocysts S. They cannot grow in a mineral medium exposed to light and air (A) P, Q and R (B) P, S and R (C) Q, R and S (D) P, Q and S

Q27 MCQ • 1M

Bioreactor types, scale-up

Which set of the following events occurs during the elongation step of translation? P. Attachment of mRNA with the smaller subunit of ribosome Q. Loading of correct aminoacyl-tRNA into the A site R. Formation of a peptide bond between the amino acyl-tRNA in the A site and the peptide chain that is attached to the peptidyl-tRNA in the P site S. Dissociation of the ribosomal subunits T. Translocation of peptidyl-tRNA from the A site to the P site of the ribosome (A) P, Q and R (B) P, Q and T (C) Q, R and T (D) R, S and T

Q28 MCQ • 1M

Downstream processing (chromatography, filtration)

A DNA sequence, 5'-ATGGACGTGCTTCCCAAAGCATCGGGC-3', is mutated to obtain P. 5'-ATGGACGTGCTTCaCAAAGCATCGGGC-3' Q. 5'-ATGGACGTGCTTCCCgAAAGCATCGGGC-3' R. 5'-ATGGACGTGCTTCC-AAAGCATCGGGC-3' S. 5'-ATGGACGTGCTTCCCAAtGCATCGGGC-3' T. 5'-ATGGACGaGCTTCCCAAAGCATCGGGC-3' [Point mutations are shown in the lower case or '-' within the sequences] Which of the above mutant sequences DO NOT have frame-shift? (A) P, Q and S (B) P, S and T (C) Q, R and S (D) Q, S and T

Q29 MCQ • 1M

Bioreactor types, scale-up

Which of the following events occur during the stationary phase of bacterial growth? P. Rise in cell number stops Q. Spore formation in some Gram-positive bacteria such as Bacillus subtilis R. Cell size increases in some Gram-negative bacteria such as Escherichia coli S. Growth rate of bacterial cells nearly equals their death rate T. Decrease in peptidoglycan crosslinking (A) P, Q and S only (B) P, S and T only (C) Q, R and S only (D) P, R and T only

Q30 NAT • 1M

Bioreactor types, scale-up

The power required for agitation of non-aerated medium in fermentation is ________ kW. Operating conditions are as follows: Fermentor diameter = 3 m Number of impellers = 1 Mixing speed = 300 rpm Diameter of the Rushton turbine = 1 m Viscosity of the broth = 0.001 Pa.s Density of the broth = 1000 kg.m-3 Power number = 5

Q31 MCQ • 1M

Bioreactor types, scale-up

Match the secondary metabolites (Column-I) with the corresponding plant species (Column-II). Column-I Column-II P. Morphine 1. Datura stramonium Q. Pyrethrins 2. Catharanthus roseus R. Scopolamine 3. Papaver somniferum S. Vincristine 4. Tagetes erecta (A) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (B) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

Q32 NAT • 1M

Probability and Statistics

A variety of genetic elements are used in the transgenic plant research. Match the genetic elements (Column-I) with their corresponding source (Column-II). Column-I Column-II P. Ubiquitin1 promoter 1. Agrobacterium tumefaciens Q. Nos transcriptional terminator 2. Streptomyces hygroscopicus R. bar selection marker gene 3. Escherichia coli S. gus reporter gene 4. Zea mays (A) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

Q33 NAT • 1M

Linear Algebra

Match the type of chromosomal inheritance ( Column-I) with the corresponding genetic disease or trait (Column-II). Column-I Column-II P. Autosomal recessive inheritance 1. Huntington disease Q. Autosomal dominant inheritance 2. Hairy ears R. X-linked inheritance 3. Cystic fibrosis S. Y-linked inheritance 4. Hemophilia (A) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2 (B) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (C) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1

Q34 MCQ • 1M

Differential Equations

A crossing was performed between the genotypes DdEeFfgg and ddEeFfGg. Assuming that the allelic pairs of all genes assort independently, the proportion of progeny having the genotype ddeeffgg is expected to be ______________%.

Q35 NAT • 1M

Calculus

The equilibrium potential of a biological membrane for Na + is 55 mV at 37 ⁰C. Concentration of Na+ inside the cell is 20 mM. Assuming the membrane is permeable to Na+ only, the Na+ concentration outside the membrane will be ______________ mM. (Faraday constant: 23062 cal.V-1.mol-1, Gas constant: 1.98 cal.mol-1.K-1)

Q36 MCQ • 2M

Mass transfer in bioprocesses (kLa)

A 1.2 kb DNA fragment was cloned into BamHI and EcoRI sites located on a 2.8 kb cloning vector. The BamHI and EcoRI sites are adjacent to each other on the vector backbone. The vector contains an XhoI site located 300 bp upstream of the BamHI site. An internal XhoI site is present in the gene sequence as shown in the figure. The resultant recombinant plasmid is digested with EcoRI and XhoI and analyzed through 1% agarose gel electrophoresis. Assuming complete digestion with EcoRI and XhoI, the DNA fragments (in base pairs) visible on the agarose gel will correspond to: (A) 2800, 700 and 500 (B) 2800, 700 and 800 (C) 2500, 700 and 800 (D) 2500, 1200 and 300

Q37 MCQ • 2M

DNA replication, transcription, translation

Which set of the following events occurs during the elongation step of translation? P. Attachment of mRNA with the smaller subunit of ribosome Q. Loading of correct aminoacyl-tRNA into the A site R. Formation of a peptide bond between the amino acyl-tRNA in the A site and the peptide chain that is attached to the peptidyl-tRNA in the P site S. Dissociation of the ribosomal subunits T. Translocation of peptidyl-tRNA from the A site to the P site of the ribosome

Q38 MCQ • 2M

Cell structure and signaling

Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT for antigen activated effector T cells? P. CD4 + cells make contact with macrophages and stimulate their microbicidal activity Q. CD4+ cells make contact with B cells and stimulate them to differentiate into plasma cells R. CD8+ cells make contact with B cells and stimulate them to differentiate into plasma cells S. CD8+ cells make contact with virus infected cells and kill them (A) Q only (B) Q and S only (C) P, Q and S only (D) P, Q, R and S

Q39 MCQ • 2M

DNA replication, transcription, translation

Which of the following events occur during the stationary phase of bacterial growth? P. Rise in cell number stops Q. Spore formation in some Gram-positive bacteria such as Bacillus subtilis R. Cell size increases in some Gram-negative bacteria such as Escherichia coli S. Growth rate of bacterial cells nearly equals their death rate T. Decrease in peptidoglycan crosslinking

Q40 MCQ • 2M

Downstream processing (chromatography, filtration)

In animal cell culture, a CO2 enriched atmosphere in the incubator chamber is used to maintain the culture pH between 6.9 and 7.4. Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?

Q41 MCQ • 2M

Mass transfer in bioprocesses (kLa)

Choose the CORRECT combination of True (T) and False (F) statements about microcarriers used in animal cell culture. P. Higher cell densities can be achieved using microcarriers Q. Microcarriers increase the surface area for cell growth R. Microcarriers are used for both anchorage- and nonanchorage-dependent cells S. Absence of surface charge on microcarriers enhances attachment of cells (A) P-T, Q-F, R-T and S-F (B) P-T, Q-T, R-F and S-F (C) P-F, Q-F, R-T and S-T (D) P-F, Q-T, R-F and S-T

Q42 MCQ • 2M

Mass transfer in bioprocesses (kLa)

A variety of genetic elements are used in the transgenic plant research. Match the genetic elements (Column-I) with their corresponding source (Column-II). Column-I Column-II P. Ubiquitin1 promoter 1. Agrobacterium tumefaciens Q. Nos transcriptional terminator 2. Streptomyces hygroscopicus R. bar selection marker gene 3. Escherichia coli S. gus reporter gene 4. Zea mays

Q43 MCQ • 2M

Mass transfer in bioprocesses (kLa)

The molar extinction coefficients of Trp and Tyr at 280 nm are 5690 and 1280 M -1.cm-1, respectively. The polypeptide chain of yeast alcohol dehydrogenase (37 kDa) contains 5 Trp and 14 Tyr residues. The absorbance at 280 nm of a 0.32 mg.mL-1 solution of yeast alcohol dehydrogenase measured in a cuvette of 1 cm pathlength will be ________________. (Assume that the molar extinction coefficient values for Trp and Tyr apply to these amino acids in the yeast alcohol dehydrogenase).

Q44 NAT • 2M

Downstream processing (chromatography, filtration)

The activity of lactate dehydrogenase can be measured by monitoring the following reaction: Pyruvate + NADH Lactate + NAD+ The molar extinction coefficient of NADH at 340 nm is 6220 M-1.cm-1. NAD+ does not absorb at this wavelength. In an assay, 25 µL of a sample of enzyme (containing 5 µg protein per mL) was added to a mixture of pyruvate and NADH to give a total volume of 3 mL in a cuvette of 1 cm pathlength. The rate of decrease in absorbance at 340 nm was 0.14 min-1. The specific activity of the enzyme will be _______________ µmol.min-1.mg-1.

Q45 NAT • 2M

Mass transfer in bioprocesses (kLa)

Analysis of a hexapeptide using enzymatic cleavage reveals the following result:  Amino acid composition of the peptide is: 2R, A,V, S, Y  Trypsin digestion yields two fragments and the compositions are: (R, A, V) and (R, S, Y)  Chymotrypsin digestion yields two fragments and the compositions are: (A, R, V, Y) and (R, S)  Digestion with carboxypeptidase A yields no cleavage product. Given: Trypsin cleaves at carboxyl side of R. Chymotrypsin cleaves at carboxyl side of Y. Carboxypeptidase A cleaves at amino side of the C-terminal amino acid (except R and K) of the peptide. The correct amino acid sequence of the peptide is: (A) RSYRVA (B) AVRYSR (C) SRYVAR (D) SVRRYA

Q46 MCQ • 2M

Recombinant DNA technology

A 1.2 kb DNA fragment was cloned into BamHI and EcoRI sites located on a 2.8 kb cloning vector. The BamHI and EcoRI sites are adjacent to each other on the vector backbone. The vector contains an XhoI site located 300 bp upstream of the BamHI site. An internal XhoI site is present in the gene sequence as shown in the figure. The resultant recombinant plasmid is digested with EcoRI and XhoI and analyzed through 1% agarose gel electrophoresis. Assuming complete digestion with EcoRI and XhoI, the DNA fragments (in base pairs) visible on the agarose gel will correspond to:

Q47 MCQ • 2M

Bioreactor types, scale-up

Saccharomyces cerevisiae is cultured in a chemostat (continuous fermentation) at a dilution rate of Q.5 h -1. The feed substrate concentration is 10 g.L-1. The biomass concentration in the chemostat at steady state will be _____________ g.L-1. Assumptions: Feed is sterile, maintenance is negligible and maximum biomass yield with respect to substrate is 0.4 (g biomass per g ethanol). Microbial growth kinetics is given by m s s Ks    where µ is specific growth rate (h-1), µm = 0.7 h-1, Ks = 0.3 g.L-1 and s is substrate concentration (g.L-1).

Q48 MCQ • 2M

Bioreactor types, scale-up

Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT for antigen activated effector T cells? P. CD4+ cells make contact with macrophages and stimulate their microbicidal activity Q. CD4+ cells make contact with B cells and stimulate them to differentiate into plasma cells R. CD8+ cells make contact with B cells and stimulate them to differentiate into plasma cells S. CD8+ cells make contact with virus infected cells and kill them

Q49 MCQ • 2M

Bioreactor types, scale-up

A bioreactor is scaled up based on equal impeller tip speed. Consider the following parameters for small and large bioreactors: Parameters Small biorea ctor Large bioreactor Impeller speed N1 N 2 Diameter of impeller D 1 D 2 Power consumption P 1 P 2 Assuming geometrical similarity and the bioreactors are operated in turbulent regime, what will be P 2/P1? (A) (D1/D2)2 (B) (D 2/D1)2 (C) (D 1/D2)5 (D) (D 2/D1)5

Q50 MCQ • 2M

Biomolecules, enzyme kinetics

An enzyme converts substrate A to product B. At a given liquid feed stream of flow rate 25 L.min-1 and feed substrate concentration of 2 mol.L-1, the volume of continuous stirred tank reactor needed for 95% conversion will be _____________ L. Given the rate equation: 0.1 10 . 5 A A A Cr C  where ̶ rA is the rate of reaction in mol.L-1.min-1 and CA is the substrate concentration in mol.L-1 Assumptions: Enzyme concentration is contant and does not undergo any deactivation during the reaction.

Q51 MCQ • 2M

Linear Algebra

A protein is to be purified using ion-exchange column chromatography. The relationship between HETP (Height Equivalent to Theoretical Plate) and the linear liquid velocity of mobile phase is given by: AHB u Cu  where H is HETP (m) and u is linear liquid velocity of mobile phase (m.s-1). The values of A, B and C are 3×10-8 m2.s-1, 3 s and 6×10-5 m, respectively. The number of theoretical plates based on minimum HETP for a column of 66 cm length will be ___________.

Q52 NAT • 2M

Mass transfer in bioprocesses (kLa)

An enzyme is immobilized on the surface of a non-porous spherical particle of 2 mm diameter. The immobilized enzyme is suspended in a solution having bulk substrate concentration of 10 mM. The enzyme follows first order kinetics with rate constant 10 s-1 and the external mass transfer coefficient is 1 cm.s-1. Assume steady state condition wherein rate of enzyme reaction (mmol.L-1.s-1) at the surface is equal to mass transfer rate (mmol.L-1.s-1). The substrate concentration at the surface of the immobilized particle will be ________ mM.

Q53 NAT • 2M

Biomolecules, enzyme kinetics

The molar extinction coefficients of Trp and Tyr at 280 nm are 5690 and 1280 M-1.cm-1, respectively. The polypeptide chain of yeast alcohol dehydrogenase (37 kDa) contains 5 Trp and 14 Tyr residues. The absorbance at 280 nm of a 0.32 mg.mL-1 solution of yeast alcohol dehydrogenase measured in a cuvette of 1 cm pathlength will be ________________. (Assume that the molar extinction coefficient values for Trp and Tyr apply to these amino acids in the yeast alcohol dehydrogenase).

Q54 NAT • 2M

Cell structure and signaling

The activity of lactate dehydrogenase can be measured by monitoring the following reaction: Pyruvate + NADH Lactate + NAD+ The molar extinction coefficient of NADH at 340 nm is 6220 M-1.cm-1. NAD+ does not absorb at this wavelength. In an assay, 25 µL of a sample of enzyme (containing 5 µg protein per mL) was added to a mixture of pyruvate and NADH to give a total volume of 3 mL in a cuvette of 1 cm pathlength. The rate of decrease in absorbance at 340 nm was 0.14 min-1. The specific activity of the enzyme will be _______________ µmol.min-1.mg-1. GATE 2016 Biotechnology (BT)

Q55 MCQ • 2M

Mass transfer in bioprocesses (kLa)

Consider the equation 2 aSV SbS c   Given a = 4, b = 1 and c = 9, the positive value of S at which V is maximum, will be _______.

Q56 NAT • 2M

Quantitative Aptitude

The empirical formula for biomass of an unknown organism is CH1.8O0.5N0.2. To grow this organism, ethanol (C2H5OH) and ammonia are used as carbon and nitrogen sources, respectively. Assume no product formation other than biomass. To produce 1 mole of biomass from 1 mole of ethanol, the number of moles of oxygen required will be _______________.

Q57 NAT • 2M

Quantitative Aptitude

Saccharomyces cerevisiae is cultured in a chemostat (continuous fermentation) at a dilution rate of Q.5 h-1. The feed substrate concentration is 10 g.L-1. The biomass concentration in the chemostat at steady state will be _____________ g.L-1. Assumptions: Feed is sterile, maintenance is negligible and maximum biomass yield with respect to substrate is 0.4 (g biomass per g ethanol). Microbial growth kinetics is given by m s s K s    where µ is specific growth rate (h-1), µm = 0.7 h-1, Ks = 0.3 g.L-1 and s is substrate concentration (g.L-1).

Q58 NAT • 2M

Quantitative Aptitude

Decimal reduction time of bacterial spores is 23 min at 121 ⁰C and the death kinetics follow first order. One liter medium containing 105 spores per mL was sterilized for 10 min at 121 ⁰C in a batch sterilizer. The number of spores in the medium after sterilization (assuming destruction of spores in heating and cooling period is negligible) will be ___________×107.

Q59 MCQ • 2M

Analytical & Spatial Aptitude

A bioreactor is scaled up based on equal impeller tip speed. Consider the following parameters for small and large bioreactors: Parameters Small bioreactor Large bioreactor Impeller speed N1 N2 Diameter of impeller D1 D2 Power consumption P1 P2 Assuming geometrical similarity and the bioreactors are operated in turbulent regime, what will be P2/P1?

Q60 NAT • 2M

Quantitative Aptitude

An enzyme converts substrate A to product B. At a given liquid feed stream of flow rate 25 L.min-1 and feed substrate concentration of 2 mol.L-1, the volume of continuous stirred tank reactor needed for 95% conversion will be _____________ L. Given the rate equation: Q.1 1 0.5 A A A C r C   where ̶ rA is the rate of reaction in mol.L-1.min-1 and CA is the substrate concentration in mol.L-1 Assumptions: Enzyme concentration is contant and does not undergo any deactivation during the reaction.

Q61 NAT • 2M

Quantitative Aptitude

A protein is to be purified using ion-exchange column chromatography. The relationship between HETP (Height Equivalent to Theoretical Plate) and the linear liquid velocity of mobile phase is given by: A H Bu C u    where H is HETP (m) and u is linear liquid velocity of mobile phase (m.s-1). The values of A, B and C are 3×10-8 m2.s-1, 3 s and 6×10-5 m, respectively. The number of theoretical plates based on minimum HETP for a column of 66 cm length will be ___________.

Q62 NAT • 2M

Analytical & Spatial Aptitude

A smart city integrates all modes of transport, uses clean energy and promotes sustainable use of resources. It also uses technology to ensure safety and security of the city, something which critics argue, will lead to a surveillance state. Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above paragraph? (i) All smart cities encourage the formation of surveillance states. (ii) Surveillance is an integral part of a smart city. (iii) Sustainability and surveillance go hand in hand in a smart city. (iv) There is a perception that smart cities promote surveillance.

Q63 NAT • 2M

Quantitative Aptitude

2 2 0 d y y dx   . The initial conditions for this second order homogeneous differential equation are y(0) = 1 and dy dx = 3 at x = 0 The value of y when x = 2 is ___________.

Q64 NAT • 2M

Quantitative Aptitude

The binary operation □ is defined as a □ b = ab+(a+b), where a and b are any two real numbers. The value of the identity element of this operation, defined as the number x such that a □ x = a, for any a, is .

Q65 NAT • 2M

Quantitative Aptitude

Consider the equation 2 aS V S b S c    Given a = 4, b = 1 and c = 9, the positive value of S at which V is maximum, will be _______.